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Q. Courvoisier sign is classically associated with-: a) Gallstones. b) Carcinoma head of pancreas. c) Acute cholecystitis. d) Liver abscess.
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📚 Hypersensitivity Reactions - made easy. ✓ Here's a quick, high-yield revision sheet especially useful for MBBS, NEET-PG, INI-CET, FMGE, USMLE, PLAB and other medical exams as well as in clinical practice.
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Q. A patient presents with painful, recurrent oral aphthous ulcers. Lab workup reveals megaloblastic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils. Which vitamin deficiency is the most likely culprit? A) Vitamin A. B) Vitamin C. C) Vitamin D. D) Vitamin B12.
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📚 Correct answer explained! ✓ This case perfectly highlights Bilateral Hilar Lymphadenopathy alongside perilymphatic nodules - classic high yield findings for Sarcoidosis on a chest X-ray. ✓ Check out our complete, step-by-step radiological review to lock in this concept for your upcoming exams & clinical practice: 👇 medlearnhub.in/blogs/sarcoid…
Q. A 45 year old man with sarcoidosis has a chest X-ray showing bilateral perilymphatic pulmonary nodules. Which associated finding is classically expected? A) Pleural effusion. B) Lobar consolidation. C) Cavitary lesions. D) Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.
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Q. Which antibody is associated with Graves disease? A) Anti-TPO. B) TSH-receptor antibody. C) Anti-thyroglobulin. D) Anti-dsDNA.
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Q. What is the first-line intravenous drug used for the termination of acute paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)? A) Amiodarone. B) Digoxin. C) Verapamil. D) Adenosine.
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⚡ USMLE Buzzword ⚡ Reed-Sternberg cells ("owl eyes") = ?
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Q. A 45 year old man with sarcoidosis has a chest X-ray showing bilateral perilymphatic pulmonary nodules. Which associated finding is classically expected? A) Pleural effusion. B) Lobar consolidation. C) Cavitary lesions. D) Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.
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📢 Triad of the day 📢 • Periventricular calcifications. • Sensorineural hearing loss. • Chorioretinitis. What is the likely diagnosis?
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Q::Colostrum is usually produced during: A) Only after 1 month B) The first few days after birth C) 2–3 months after birth D) Only during weaning
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What gives human blood its red colourâť“ A) Melanin B) Chlorophyll C) Hemoglobin D) Carotene
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This is goitre, why is it that most of this condition affects women? Can we say it's a women disease?
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Swinging the weight during a bicep curl — what injury does this put you at risk for? A) Bicep tendon tear B) Lower back injury C) Shoulder injury D) All of the above CC 🎥: Maduka okoye
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Best foods for thyroid metabolism Must watch 👇
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The Preload Trap in Emergency Medicine Why standard chest pain protocols can cause cardiovascular collapse in an Inferior Wall MI. ​If a patient arrives clutching their chest profoundly diaphoretic with a BP of 92/60 and a heart rate of 48 your instinct might be the standard MONA protocol (Morphine, Oxygen, Nitro, Aspirin). ​If you give Nitroglycerin here their blood pressure will likely bottom out. Here is the clinical physiology behind why this happens. ​When a 12-lead ECG shows ST-elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, you are looking at an acute Inferior Wall STEMI. The inferior wall of the heart is primarily supplied by the Right Coronary Artery (RCA) which also supplies the Right Ventricle (RV). ​If the RV is infarcted it loses its ability to pump effectively. The heart becomes completely dependent on preload (venous blood return) to maintain any forward cardiac output. ​Nitroglycerin is a potent venous vasodilator. It pools blood in the veins drastically dropping preload. In a patient with a Right Ventricular infarct dropping their preload takes away the only mechanical advantage keeping their blood pressure afloat. ​Instead of vasodilators these patients often need IV fluid boluses (like 500cc of Normal Saline) to maximize preload alongside Aspirin a P2Y12 inhibitor Heparin and immediate Cath Lab activation. Always grab a right-sided ECG (leads V3R-V6R) to confirm RV involvement before giving standard meds in an inferior MI. ​How does your specific ER protocol handle the transition from a standard 12-lead to a right-sided ECG during a high-pressure code STEMI? For educational purposes Animation by me
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Summary on Haemophilia 🔥🔥 Great study guide 💥
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Q. Which brain region is primarily responsible for coordination and balance? a) Basal ganglia. b) Cerebellum. c) Thalamus. d) Hippocampus.
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Q. This treatment being done here is primarily indicated for? A. Mild non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. B. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy. C. Cataract. D. Central retinal artery occlusion.
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